28. True or False. Under U.S. law, any person who pays taxes can contribute to an IRA, and the contributions are tax-free.

44. True or False. Managers, executives, and lower level employees should all go through the same type of termination process.

49. True or False. If an organization offers leave benefits beyond those required by law, it should never make a declarative statement about this in its handbook

51. Which of the following assessments does not always need to be considered depending on the international assignment?

A. Person-organization fit

B. Personality-job fit

C. Language ability

D. Suitability of immediate family

52. The ERISA Act requires all of the following except:

A. All employees who have worked for more than one year and are over 21 years of age must be offered participation in any company-sponsored retirement plans.

B. Federal vesting rules must be followed, with a maximum vesting period of 100% at five years, or 20% per year from years 3 through 7.

C. Employee retirement accounts must be portable. When the employee changes jobs, their retirement funds can be transferred to their new employer or another qualified investment.

D. Fiduciaries who manage company retirement programs must act under the prudent man concept that says they should use care and diligence when investing retirement funds.

E. All employers must provide some form of employee retirement system for employees who are over the age of 21 and who request retirement accounts.

53. Maria is conducting a job evaluation in her organization by breaking each job down into component skills or abilities. After she completes that task, she will assign points to each skill or ability based on its difficulty. Maria is using the ________ method of job evaluation.

a. job ranking

b. point-factor

c. factor comparison

d. job hierarchy

54. Giorgio intentionally inserted an Internet worm into his company’s computer systems because he received low evaluation scores this period. Giorgio is guilty of:

A. Gross negligence

B. Just cause

C. A mistake

D. Employee resistance to change

E. Serious misconduct

55. Variable pay is:

A. compensation based on the reduction of the company’s variable costs.

B. compensation that varies based on the number of hours an employee works.

C. a payment made to a supplier in multiple installments.

D. compensation awarded on the basis of individual results or performance.

E. a payment made to employees based on willingness to work overtime.

56. John is always working to improve his cultural competence because his organization competes on a global scale with facilities in many different countries and no real “headquarters” in any country. John’s organization is in the ________ stage of corporate globalization.

a. domestic

b. international

c. multinational

d. transnational

57. Signs of potential violence include all but:

A. verbal threats

B. stalking and harassment

C. alcohol and/or drug abuse

D. employee cohesion

E. intentional property damage

58. Carl was dealing with a difficult employee problem. Doubting that he can remain objective in the situation, Carl asks Andrei to help him resolve the situation. It appears Carl is using the _________ ethical approach.

a. Golden Rule

b. four-way test

c. stakeholders’ approach

d. discernment and advice

59. Katrina’s organization is hiring for low-skilled jobs in an industry where unemployment is high and it is easy to find replacement workers. Adopting a(n) ________ organizational philosophy on compensation could allow her to hire plenty of workers.

a. wage compression

b. below-the-market

c. pay for longevity

d. competency-based pay

60. Management suspects it was Ramon who tipped off a safety inspector that one of the managers had hidden chemicals from the lab in the trunk of his car until the inspection was completed. After the inspection, managers began changing Ramon’s schedule and job duties daily. Ramon found that he could not plan for his children to be cared for while he was at work because his work schedule kept changing. Eventually, Ramon quit. It is likely Ramon experienced __________ discharge.

a. wrongful

b. constructive

c. economic

d. express

61. Wynona met an old friend for lunch. During the meal, Wynona mentioned that her company needed some help on their tax reporting. Wynona’s friend said that she was now an accounting consultant and had worked with many local organizations to streamline their tax reports. Wynona gave her a copy of the tax information for the company the next day and showed her friend what the issues were. A week later, Wynona’s friend brought completed copies of the tax forms necessary for Wynona’s company to her office. It would appear that Wynona created a(n) ________ contract when she gave her friend the tax forms.

a. express

b. implied

c. quasi

d. collective

62. ESOPs motivate employees because _______________.

a. employees will get something for nothing

b. employees will act more like owners

c. employees can reduce their work schedule

d. employees can expect higher base pay

63._____ organizations tend to believe that their values and culture are superior to others and they will therefore frequently choose to staff international facilities with home-country managers.

a. Ethocentric

b. Polycentric

c. Regiocentric

d. Geocentric

64. What mechanism is used to ensure that a company investigates any disciplinary action taken fully and fairly and makes sure that the disciplinary action fits the level of the offense?

A. The coaching model

B. The seven tests for Just Cause

C. Employee assistance programs

D. The discipline model

E. The code of conduct

65. Macy’s organization provides group health insurance to its employees. According to the ________, the organization must issue a “Summary Plan Description” that describes the plan and how it works in plain language.

a. Consolidated Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1985

b. Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996

c. Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974

d. Social Security

66. Jacob’s manager asks him to organize a blood drive for the organization. The manager tells Jacob that if he accepts the assignment, he will be awarded Employee of the Month. Jacob has organized blood drives in the past and knows how much work is involved. He does not doubt that his manager can deliver on the promise of the award. However, Jacob has always thought that the award was silly. According to expectancy theory, Jacob is unmotivated to accept the assignment because _________ is lacking.

a. valence

b. instrumentality

c. expectancy

d. significance

67. Executive compensation in the form of a deferred contribution to the executive’s retirement accounts is one of the most common forms of _________ retirement funds.

A. governed

B. qualified

C. nonqualified

D. challenged

68. When a person does something because they like it, it is interesting and personally satisfying, and they want to do it, they are receiving _______________.

A. Intrinsic rewards

B. External rewards

C. Altruistic rewards

D. Autonomous rewards

E. Extrinsic rewards

69. Alexander did not make many sales this quarter. He considered adding a few fake entries to his quarterly report. However, he decided not to do so when the boss mentioned that the new computer software is designed to catch any inconsistencies. It appears Alexander is at the _________ of moral development.

a. preconventional level

b. conventional level

c. postconventional level

d. neoconventional level

70. OSHA cited a manufacturing company for a __________ violation for exposing workers to unguarded hazardous machinery. An inspection found that the company removed the machine guarding to increase the speed of product output and knowingly permitted workers to operate the machines in this unsafe manner.

a. willful

b. serious

c. other than serious

d. de minimis

71. Melissa’s boss told her to change the numbers on a balance sheet to make things look better for an upcoming board meeting. Melissa does not want to do it, but she really needs the job. She decides to go ahead and make the change. It appears Melissa’s justification for her unethical behavior is ________.

a. Disregard or distortion of consequences

b. I did it for the good of others or the company

c. I was only following orders

d. I’m not as bad as the others

72. Kyle is exhausted from working overtime to get his projects done. His manager asked another employee to help Kyle with his work so that Kyle can work regular hours with no overtime. According to learning theory, this is __________.

a. positive reinforcement

b. negative reinforcement

c. punishment

d. avoidance reinforcement.

73. Type A personalities experience ________________________.

A. the same amount of stress as Type B personalities

B. less stress than Type B personalities

C. more stress than Type B personalities

D. immeasurable stress

74. Acme Global is closing one of its plants immediately and laying off all 200 workers. As part of the closure, Acme Global will give each employee at the plant 60 days of pay and benefits. This will help Acme Global to be in compliance with the _________.

a. Railway Labor Act of 1926

b. National Labor Relations Act of 1935

c. Worker Adjustment and Retraining Notification Act of 1988

d. Labor Management Reporting Disclosure Act of 1959

75. Alfred has requested unpaid leave to care for his wife. She was injured while serving in the Army in Afghanistan. Alfred may be able to take this leave and return to his original job (or an equivalent one) under ________.

a. Social Security

b. the Affordable Care Act

c. the Family Medical Leave Act

d. Medicare

76. Under the idea of corporate social responsibility, companies must do the following:

A. provide employees with safe working conditions

B. provide consumers with safe products and services

C. compete fairly with competitors

D. all of the choices are correct

77. What percentage of international assignments fail mainly due to the inability to adapt to cultural differences?

A. 75%

B. 50%

C. 33%

D. 10%

78. Shannon is one of the best appliance repair people in her department. She can quickly disassemble appliances to diagnose and fix problems. However, her manager has noted that when other repair people ask her for help, she hesitates and seems unsure of herself. According to situational management, her manager should use a(n)________ management style to manage Maria’s performance problem.

a. autocratic

b. consultative

c. participative

d. empowerment

79. A mediator is a neutral third party who helps resolve a conflict ______________ to impose a solution to the conflict

A. and has jurisdiction

B. but has no authority

C. and will use consensus

D. and has some authority

80. Which of the following types of PTO is mandatory for U.S. employers?

A. Paid federal holidays

B. Paid annual leave

C. Paid sick leave

D. Paid personal leave

E. There are no mandatory PTO requirements for companies in the U.S.

81. Acme Global matches its employees’ contributions to charities. In other words, if an employee gives $100 to a non-profit agency, Acme Global gives $100 as well. It appears Acme Global is reaching the ________ level of corporate social responsibility.

a. legal

b. ethical

c. benevolent

d. social

82. Samantha’s organization keeps a large amount of raw materials in stock to guard against market fluctuations. It appears the ________ dimension of cultural diversity is high at Samantha’s organization.

a. assertiveness

b. power distance

c. in-group collectivism

d. uncertainty avoidance

83. One of the most common problems in incentive systems design is:

A. creating a set of goals instead of focusing on just one goal at a time.

B. picking an expedient goal that is easy to measure, but doesn’t aim at the company’s strategic goals.

C. designing incentive goals that are capable of being affected by the targeted employee or group of employees.

D. completely separating the incentives from base pay.

E. making the incentive goals difficult to achieve.

84. _______ contain information about the physical and chemical properties of hazardous products.






85. The first major provision of the FLSA concerns ____________________.

A. underage employees

B. the unskilled workforce

C. new hires

D. the federal minimum wage

86. _____ offer health, education, training, and fitness, weight and lifestyle management, and health risk assessment services to employees.

A. Employee assistance programs

B. Triple option programs

C. Employee caretaker programs

D. Health hybrid programs

E. Employee wellness programs

87. Angeline manages a group of employees who she knows have the ability to perform, but who also feel like their performance doesn’t matter much to the success of the company, and are therefore not concerned with doing a great job. Angeline may want to approach this group using a ______management style to improve their collective performance.

A. Participative

B. Results driven

C. Consultative

D. Empowering

E. Autocratic

88. What percent of employees in a bargaining unit must sign authorization cards for the NLRB to hold a union representation election?

A. 10%

B. 25%

C. 30%

D. 50%

E. 51%

89. At the beginning of the quarter, Marcus sat down with his manager and set three goals for the next three months. The achievement of each goal will depend on Marcus. No one else in his work group can affect the work toward the goal. Which advantage of individual incentives does this illustrate?

a. easy to evaluate employee’s affect on team

b. ability to match rewards to employee desires

c. promotes the link between performance and results

d. may motivate less productive employees to work harder

90. __________ is the right to give orders, enforce obedience, make decisions, and commit resources, toward completing organizational goals.

A. Authority

B. Responsibility

C. Accountability

D. Ethics

91. _____________ is part of expectancy theory.

A. Goal-setting

B. Decision-making

C. Negotiation

D. Grievance

92. Since the Acme Global Corporation closed six of its plants last year, employees at the other plants have been feeling a great deal of stress. This type of stress falls into the _______ category of stress causes.

a. personality type

b. organizational culture and change

c. interpersonal relations

d. type of work

93. Executives at Acme Global are concerned that airline workers will go on strike and prevent shipments of products from reaching customers. However, the National Mediation Board is keeping airline management and labor in mediation to avoid a strike. The executives at Acme Global are relieved that the ________ limits the potential for strikes of airline workers.

a. Railway Labor Act of 1926

b. National Labor Relations Act of 1935 (Wagner Act)

c. Labor Management Relations Act of 1947 (Taft-Hartley Act)

d. Labor Management Reporting Disclosure Act of 1959

94. Employee rights under OSHA include all of the following except:

A. refusing to be interviewed by an inspector.

B. having a company representative present during any interview.

C. have working conditions free from unnecessary hazards.

D. file a complaint about hazardous working conditions.

E. reporting hazardous conditions to their supervisor.

95. Harold is paid based on a percentage of the value of the products and services he sells. He is being paid by:

A. bonus

B. base pay

C. value pay

D. commission

E. merit

96. Macy is English and works for a U.S.-based company in England. It appears the company has made a(n) ________ staffing choice.

a. ethnocentric

b. polycentric

c. geocentric

d. domestic

97. Which of the following is NOT a progressive discipline action?

A. oral warning

B. Termination

C. Informal coaching talk

D. Disciplinary suspension

E. Informal written warning

98. When Acme Global asked Tamera to relocate to the company’s newest foreign plant, it paid her a salary equal to what she was making in the United States and gave her an allowance for extra expenses. It appears Acme Global is using the _________ approach to expatriate compensation.

a. balance sheet

b. split-pay

c. negotiation

d. localization

99. A routine component of executive compensation, common “perks” include all of the following except:

A. stock options.

B. use of company cars and aircraft.

C. home security systems.

D. club memberships.

E. tax planning assistance.

100. Erin knows exactly what benefits she will receive when she retires. She has worked for the organization for 20 years and will receive 65 percent of the average of her two highest years of pay. Erin’s retirement plan is a ________ plan.

a. defined benefit

b. defined contribution

c. vesting

d. experience

Suggest the issues that could have developed had the team not had a risk plan.

Due Week 8 and worth 240 points

Read the case titled: “Risk Management on a Satellite Development Project” found in Chapter 10.

Write a six to eight (6-8) page paper in which you:

  1. Suggest the issues that could have developed had the team not had a risk plan. Determine the major impacts of risk that the team needs to understand for the project to be successful.
  2. Justify the value of risk plan considering the time, effort, cost, and resources it took to develop such a plan. If you were the project manager, recommend the approach that you would take to ensure the project met the critical path identified.
  3. Assess how to determine the level of risk management appropriate for a project.
  4. Imagine the team working on the satellite development project was a virtual team in which team members were unable to meet in person. Explain the expected impact on the project, and suggest two (2) ways the team could maintain its current goal in both planning and execution.
  5. Use at least four (4) quality academic (peer-reviewed) resources in this assignment.

 Your assignment must:

  • Be typed, double spaced, using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins on all sides; citations and references must follow APA or school-specific format. Check with your professor for any additional instructions.
  • Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, the student’s name, the professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page and the reference page are not included in the required assignment page length.

Chapter 10 start on page 268 and you have to scroll to the end of chapter for the case study.

Explain the reasoning for your considered outcome.

Read chapter 13-15 fully and for your week eight assignment please: 

 Create 3 fictional scenarios in which an employer would have to deal with any of the following situations of employee poor behavior on the job, Substance Abuse, Sexual Harassment, Fighting, Work Family Conflicts, or Email (or Internet) abuse. For each case, provide details of the type of employer, the history or the worker at that company, the incident which arose, why it was a clear violation of employer policy, what would be the likely result of arbitration of this issue if the employee acknowledged his wrong doing but asked to keep his job. Explain the reasoning for your considered outcome. 

Remember, this is fictional. Create a believable situation, but know that you can have whatever outcome you choose! You may not work in conjunction with any other student to complete this paper.

Submission Instructions: (

Any papers/assignments should at a minimum contain 3-5 pages of content (double spaced), include a properly formatted cover page, and a reference listing page with at least three (3) NEW references properly listed at the end of your work. Providing additional references to your assignments demonstrate your desire to conduct additional research on the topic area and can improve your research skills. 

With all assignments, include properly formatted in-text citations within the body of your work for each of your listed references so the reader can ascertain what is your original thought or ideas and what portion of your work is taken from credible sources to support your work. It is really important to identify work from other sources to ensure that proper credit is provided to researchers in the field.

Submit the weekly written assignment as an MS WORD attachment in .doc, .docx, or .rtf format. A recommended font is Times New Roman (12). DO NOT include discussion board answers with your formally written assignment submission.

Rubric link is below:

Human Resources


There are 10 positions that have become vacant due to the retirement of the University President. Your task is to recommend a salary range to post, list the benefits that will be provided for these positions, and include a list of perks that may be associated with these positions.

Complete the following table in a total of 525 to 700 words: 

Position at the University

Recommend a target salary range for posting?

What kinds of benefits are these positions eligible for?

Will these positions have perks associated with it? (Describe)

University President

Special Assistant to the President

University IT Director

Department Finance Manager 

Department HR Manager

HVAC Mechanic

Systems Administrator

Payroll Analyst

Administrative Assistant

Office Assistant

Explain in a total of 350 words how you determined the appropriate salary, benefits, and perks for each of these new roles.


NURS 3375 Health Policy And Legal Aspect (Assignment)

Overview: Peer Review

In the Module 3 Reflection Assignment, you will reflect upon what you have learned about Peer Review Committee processes and Texas Board of Nursing rules as you consider the actions of fictitious nurses and committee members in scenarios. REMEMBER, YOU ARE USING THE TEXAS BOARD OF NURSING RULES, NOT THE STATE YOU LIVE IN. Please use the link provided in the assignment for the Texas BON Rule 217.16.


Refer to your course readings and lectures as you complete the assignment.

Performance Objectives: 

· Apply the Minor Incident Rule to specific incidents.

· Describe the due process protections for a nurse who is peer-reviewed.


Use this rubric to guide your work on the assignment, “Peer Review.”




Needs Improvement

Part 1 (a)

 Applying Rule 217.16

   (Total 50 points) 

Lists all the correct 5 criteria, accurately explains application of   criteria clearly. (25 points)

Lists 3 or 4 of the   correct criteria, accurately explains application of these criteria

 (15 points)

Lists 2 applications of criteria.

 10 points)

Incorrectly lists criteria (0   point)

Part   1 (b)

 Reflects upon applications 

   of Rule 217.16

   (Total 25 points) 

Correctly states if nurse should be reported or not reported with 3 substantial sentences. (25 points)

Correctly states if nurse should be reported or not reported with 2 sentences.

 (15 point)

Writes 1 sentence.

 (10 points)

Incorrectly judges whether violations occurred (0 point)

Part   2

Violation of IBPR Rule 217.19 (Total   25 points)

Correctly listed the 4 violations and provides correct explanations (25 points)

Correctly lists 2-3 violations and explanations (15 points)

Lists 1 violation and explanation (10 points)

Incorrectly lists criteria (0 point)

All 5 questions correct (25 points)

4 questions correct (20 points)

3 questions correct (15 points)

2 questions correct (10 points)

1 question correct (5 points)

0 questions correct (0 point)

Part 1: (a) Applying Rule 217.16(h) Minor Incidents

Read the following scenario and then answer the questions that follow:

You are on your hospital’s Peer Review Committee (PRC). You are reviewing Nurse A’s practice. She works on the pediatric unit. In the past, Nurse A has practiced safely without incidents. However, four months ago, Nurse A gave immunizations to five pediatric patients (3 months, 9 months, 2 years, 4 years, and 5 years of age). She used a vial of Hepatitis B vaccine that had been expired for 30 days but still was being stored in the unit refrigerator. She gave the five immunizations within a few minutes of each other, and she got the vial from the refrigerator only once (i.e., She did not take it out and replace it five times). She took responsibility for the errors when she was informed by her unit manager. 

Should Nurse A be reported to the BON?

Let’s review what deems a minor vs. a reportable (NOT minor) incident- 

A minor incident is- 217.16(a)-  as defined under the Texas Nursing Practice Act, Texas Occupations Code §301.401(2), means conduct by a nurse that may be a violation of the Texas Nursing Practice Act or a Board rule but does not indicate the nurse’s continued practice poses a risk of harm to a patient or another person. 

A reportable incident is- 217.16(h)- conduct that falls outside of the definition of a minor incident and must be reported to a PRC or BON.

Apply the Minor Incident Rule to reach and support your decision. This Rule 217.16 can be found at

Use this specific link only- it is the official updated Texas Board of Nursing information. Click on the link and scroll down to the bottom to find the letter (h), where criteria are listed that describes actions that must be reported to the Peer Review Committee or BON.

Criteria. In the first column of the table, list the 5 criteria as it appears in the rule that are essential in determining if an incident is a reportable action. All 5 must be listed for full credit. Then, in the second column, record your explanation as to why or why not the nurse’s actions deem it reportable and therefore harmful to a patient.

Criteria that determine an incident is reportable

Rule 217.16(h)

Explanation of whether or not Nurse A’s actions are minor vs. reportable

Criteria : 






Part 1: (b) Report vs. Not Report

Based on the Rule 217.16(h) criteria you listed above, would you report Nurse A to the Board? Please explain why or why not. At least 3 substantial sentences are needed for full credit.:       (Explain below)

Part 2: Applying Rule 217.19 Incident-Based Peer Review 

Read the following scenario and then reflect upon the actions it portrays.:

Last month, the chairperson of your hospital’s Peer Review Committee (PRC) passed you in the hallway and said, “I’m glad I ran into you. You’re going to be peer-reviewed.” The chairperson continued, saying, “Your manager found out that you called the Texas Department of State Health Services two months ago and reported that LVNs were being allowed to do the complete initial assessment on patients. Also, you made some medication errors over the past couple of months. I’ll let you know when the meeting is to occur.” 

You heard nothing more about the PRC meeting. Today, the chairperson came to you and told you that you had been reported to the Texas Board of Nursing. She said, “It was just felt by the work group that you are a troublemaker and lack the skills to practice due to your med errors. I’m also giving you a ‘heads up’ that you are going to be put on suspension for at least three days by your unit manager.”

Applying Rule 217.19, what violations of the rule occurred in the above scenario? 

First, review your learning about incident-based peer review. In the first column of the table, list any 4 criteria from Rule 217.19 that were violated (there are more than 4 to choose from). 





In the second column, explain how each criterion was violated. All 4 boxes must be completed for full credit. Please use the link provided at

Which part of the rule was violated? 

(Subsection number and letter OR descriptive phrase)

(Rule 217.19)

Explanation of violation ( from the 4 criteria above):





Post an explanation of how the factor you selected might influence the pharmacokinetic and pharmacodynamic processes in the patient from the case study you selected.

Case Study 1:

Patient AO has a history of obesity and has recently gained 9 pounds. The patient has been diagnosed with hypertension and hyperlipidemia. Drugs currently prescribed include the following:

  • Atenolol 12.5 mg daily
  • Doxazosin 8 mg daily
  • Hydralazine 10 mg qid
  • Sertraline 25 mg daily
  • Simvastatin 80 mg daily
Case Study 2:

Patient HM has a history of atrial fibrillation and a transient ischemic attack (TIA). The patient has been diagnosed with type 2 diabetes, hypertension, hyperlipidemia and ischemic heart disease. Drugs currently prescribed include the following:

  • Warfarin 5 mg daily MWF and 2.5 mg daily T, TH, Sat, Sun
  • Aspirin 81 mg daily
  • Metformin 1000 mg po bid
  • Glyburide 10 mg bid
  • Atenolol 100 mg po daily
  • Motrin 200 mg 1–3 tablets every 6 hours as needed for pain
Case Study 3:

Patient CB has a history of strokes. The patient has been diagnosed with type 2 diabetes, hypertension, and hyperlipidemia. Drugs currently prescribed include the following:

  • Glipizide 10 mg po daily
  • HCTZ 25 mg daily
  • Atenolol 25 mg po daily
  • Hydralazine 25 mg qid
  • Simvastatin 80 mg daily
  • Verapamil 180 mg CD daily
To prepare:
  • Review this week’s media presentation on hypertension and hyperlipidemia, as well as Chapters 19 and 20 of the Arcangelo and Peterson text.
  • Select one of the three case studies, as well as one the following factors: genetics, gender, ethnicity, age, or behavior factors.
  • Reflect on how the factor you selected might influence the patient’s pharmacokinetic and pharmacodynamic processes.
  • Consider how changes in the pharmacokinetic and pharmacodynamic processes might impact the patient’s recommended drug therapy.
  • Think about how you might improve the patient’s drug therapy plan based on the pharmacokinetic and pharmacodynamic changes. Reflect on whether you would modify the current drug treatment or provide an alternative treatment option for the patient.

With these thoughts in mind:

By Day 3

Post an explanation of how the factor you selected might influence the pharmacokinetic and pharmacodynamic processes in the patient from the case study you selected. Then, describe how changes in the processes might impact the patient’s recommended drug therapy. Finally, explain how you might improve the patient’s drug therapy plan.

Walden NURS6501 Week 8 Quiz Latest 2017

Question 1

A 40-year-old female presents complaining of pain near the midline in the epigastrium. Assuming the pain is caused by a stimulus acting on an abdominal organ, the pain felt is classified as:

a. Visceral
b. Somatic
c. Parietal
d. Referred

Question 2

An 8-week-old male was recently diagnosed with cystic fibrosis. Which of the following digestive alterations would be expected?

a. Insufficient bile production
b. Gastric atrophy
c. Hypersecretion of stomach acid
d. Nutrient malabsorption

Question 3

In alcoholic cirrhosis, hepatocellular damage is caused by:

a. acetaldehyde accumulation.
b. bile toxicity.
c. acidosis.
d. fatty infiltrations.

Question 4

Where does the nurse expect the obstruction to be in a patient with extrahepatic portal hypertension?

a. Sinusoids
b. Bile ducts
c. Hepatic portal vein
d. Hepatic artery

Question 5

Kwashiorkor is a severe dietary deficiency of:

a. fat-soluble vitamins.
b. carbohydrates.
c. protein.
d. calcium and magnesium.

Question 6

A 27-year-old male presents with fever, GI bleeding, hepatomegaly, and transient joint pain. He reports that as a child he received blood transfusions following a motor vehicle accident. He also indicates he was vaccinated against hepatitis B. Which of the following types of hepatitis does the clinician think he most likely has?

a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D

Question 7

Prolonged diarrhea is more serious in children than adults because:

a. children have lower adipose reserves.
b. fluid reserves are lower in children.
c. children have a lower metabolic rate.
d. children are more resistant to antimicrobial therapy.

Question 8

A 40-year-old male develops an intestinal obstruction related to protrusion of the intestine through the inguinal ring. This condition is referred to as:

a. Intussusception
b. A volvulus
c. A hernia
d. Adhesions

Question 9

A 60-year-old male presents with GI bleeding and abdominal pain. He reports that he takes NSAIDs daily to prevent heart attack. Tests reveal that he has a peptic ulcer. The most likely cause of this disease is:

a. Increasing subepithelial bicarbonate production
b. Accelerating the H+ (proton) pump in parietal cells
c. Inhibiting mucosal prostaglandin synthesis
d. Stimulating a shunt of mucosal blood flow

Question 10

Acute pancreatitis often manifests with pain to which of the following regions?

a. Right lower quadrant
b. Right upper quadrant
c. Epigastric
d. Suprapubic

Question 11

A 60-year-old male is diagnosed with cancer of the esophagus. Which of the following factors most likely contributed to his disease?

a. Reflux esophagitis
b. Intestinal parasites
c. Ingestion of salty foods
d. Frequent use of antacids

Question 12

The primary complication of enterocolitis associated with Hirschsprung disease is related to which finding?

a. Fecal impaction
b. Pancreatic insufficiency
c. Hyperactive peristalsis
d. Ileal atresia

Question 13

The most common cause of chronic vascular insufficiency among the elderly is:

a. Anemia
b. Aneurysm
c. Lack of nutrition in gut lumen
d. Atherosclerosis

Question 14

The most common clinical manifestation of portal hypertension is _____ bleeding.

a. rectal
b. duodenal
c. esophageal
d. intestinal

Question 15

A 54-year-old male is diagnosed with peptic ulcer disease.This condition is most likely caused by:

a. Hereditary hormonal imbalances with high gastrin levels
b. Breaks in the mucosa and presence of corrosive secretions
c. Decreased vagal activity and vascular engorgement
d. Gastric erosions related to high ammonia levels and bile reflux

Question 16

The cardinal sign of pyloric stenosis caused by ulceration or tumors is:

a. Constipation
b. Diarrhea
c. Vomiting
d. Heartburn

Question 17

A 55-year-old male died in a motor vehicle accident. Autopsy revealed an enlarged liver caused by fatty infiltration, testicular atrophy, and mild jaundice secondary to cirrhosis. The most likely cause of his condition is:

a. Bacterial infection
b. Viral infection
c. Alcoholism
d. Drug overdose

Question 18

Manifestations associated with hepatic encephalopathy from chronic liver disease are the result of:

a. hyperbilirubinemia and jaundice.
b. fluid and electrolyte imbalances.
c. impaired ammonia metabolism.
d. decreased cerebral blood flow.

Question 19

The most common disorder associated with upper GI bleeding is:

a. diverticulosis.
b. hemorrhoids.
c. esophageal varices.
d. cancer.

Question 20

A 3-month-old female develops colicky pain, abdominal distention, and diarrhea after drinking cow’s milk. The best explanation for her symptoms is:

a. Deficiency of bile that stimulates digestive secretions and bowel motility
b. Excess of amylase, which increases the breakdown of starch and causes an osmotic diarrhea
c. Overgrowth of bacteria from undigested fat molecules, which leads to gas formation and de creased bowel motility
d. Excess of undigested lactose in her digestive tract, resulting in increased fluid movement into the digestive lumen and increased bowel motility

Question 21

A 55-year-old female has general symptoms of gallstones but is also jaundiced. IV cholangiography would most likely reveal that the gallstones are obstructing the:

a. Intrahepatic bile canaliculi
b. Gallbladder
c. Cystic duct
d. Common bile duct

Question 22

A 1-week-old female is brought to her pediatrician for abdominal distention and unstable temperature. Physical examination reveals bradycardia and apnea. Tests reveal hypoxic injury to the bowel resulting in bacterial invasion and perforation. This condition is referred to as:

a. Infective enteropathy
b. Necrotizing enterocolitis (NEC)
c. Mucoviscidosis
d. Ileus

Question 23

For the patient experiencing esophageal reflux, the nurse would expect which sphincter to be malfunctioning?

a. Pyloric
b. Lower esophageal
c. Upper esophageal
d. Gastric

Question 24

Cholecystitis is inflammation of the gallbladder wall usually caused by:

a. accumulation of bile in the hepatic duct.
b. obstruction of the cystic duct by a gall-stone.
c. accumulation of fat in the wall of the gallbladder.
d. viral infection of the gallbladder.

Question 25

A 6-month-old male infant is brought to the ER after the sudden development of abdominal pain, irritability, and vomiting followed by passing of “currant jelly” stool. Ultrasound reveals intestinal obstruction in which the ileum collapsed through the ileocecal valve and invaginated into the large intestine. This type of obstruction is referred to as:

a. Prolapse
b. Pyloric stenosis
c. Intussusception
d. Imperforation

Question 26

A 22-year-old male underwent brain surgery to remove a tumor. Following surgery, he experienced a peptic ulcer. His ulcer is referred to as a(n) _____ ulcer.

a. Infectious
b. Cushing
c. Ischemic
d. Curling

Question 27

Chronic gastritis is classified according to the:

a. severity.
b. location of lesions.
c. patient’s age.
d. signs and symptoms.

Question 28

Reflux esophagitis is defined as a(n):

a. Immune response to gastroesophageal reflux
b. Inflammatory response to gastroesophageal reflux
c. Congenital anomaly
d. Secretory response to hiatal hernia

Question 29

The cardinal signs of small bowel obstruction are:

a. Vomiting and distention
b. Diarrhea and excessive thirst
c. Dehydration and epigastric pain
d. Abdominal pain and rectal bleeding

Question 30

The nurse assessing the patient with biliary atresia would expect to find which primary clinical manifestation?

a. Anemia
b. Jaundice
c. Hypobilirubinemia
d. Ascites

Question 31

A 20-year-old male was recently diagnosed with lactose intolerance. He eats an ice cream cone and develops diarrhea. His diarrhea can be classified as _____ diarrhea.

a. Motility
b. Hypotonic
c. Secretory
d. Osmotic

Question 32

Which of the following symptoms would help a health care provider distinguish between ulcerative colitis and Crohn disease?

a. Pattern of remission/exacerbations
b. Abdominal pain
c. Malabsorption
d. Diarrhea

Question 33

A 45-year-old male complains of heartburn after eating and difficulty swallowing. He probably has:

a. Pyloric stenosis
b. Hiatal hernia
c. Gastric cancer
d. Achalasia

Question 34

The exocrine portion of the pancreas contains:

a. alpha cells.
b. beta cells.
c. acinar cells.
d. islets of Langerhans.

Question 35

Outbreaks of hepatitis _____ often occur in young children attending day care centers and can be attributed to poor hand washing.

a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D

Explain How You See Yourself Fitting Into The Following IOM Future Of Nursing Recommendations

In a reflection of 450-600 words, explain how you see yourself fitting into the following IOM Future of Nursing recommendations:

1. Recommendation 4: Increase the proportion of nurses with a baccalaureate degree to 80% by 2020.

2. Recommendation 5: Double the number of nurses with a doctorate by 2020.

3. Recommendation 6: Ensure that nurses engage in lifelong learning.

Identify your options in the job market based on your educational level. (I have Associate degree in nursing (ADN) and this a Bachelor science in nursing program, (BSN) so you can have based it on BSN, because I will be done soon)

1. How will increasing your level of education affect how you compete in the current job market?

2. How will increasing your level of education affect your role in the future of nursing?

A minimum of Four scholarly references are required for this assignment. solid academic writing is expected, and in-text citations and references should be presented using APA documentation guidelines, an abstract is not required, CITE WEBSITE SOURCE. 


n this week’s activity you will have an opportunity to play a clinician and diagnose fictitious individuals with mental disorders. Please answer the questions below;

  • Susan, a college student, is anxious whenever she must speak. Her anxiety motivates her to prepare meticulously and rehearse material again and again. Is Susan’s reaction normal, or does she have an anxiety disorder? Explain the criteria you used in arriving at your answer.
  •  In recent years, several best-selling books have argued that most emotional problems can be traced to an unhappy or traumatic childhood (an abusive or dysfunctional family, “toxic” parents, suppression of the “inner child”). What are two possible benefits of focusing on childhood as the time when emotional problems originate, and what are two possible drawbacks? 
  • Some mental health professionals (though not most psychologists) think that PMS should be classified as a mental disorder. Drawing on evidence from Chapter 5 of your textbook and information in Chapter 11, write a paragraph giving some arguments against this position.

This assignment must be submitted in “doc” or “ docx.” format. Additionally, it must be typed, double spaced, Times New Roman font (size 12), one inch margins on all sides. Type the question followed by your answer to the question. A title page is to be included. The title page is to contain the title of the assignment, your name, the instructor’s name, the course title, and the date.All assignments must be submitted in “Blackboard by by clicking on the Assignment link under the appropriate weekly unit and clicking on Browse to attach your work as a .doc or .docx.



Question 1

A nurse who provides care on an acute medicine unit has frequently recommended the use of nicotine replacement gum for patients who express a willingness to quit smoking during their admission or following their discharge. For which of the following patients would nicotine gum be contraindicated?

A.            A patient whose stage III pressure ulcer required intravenous antibiotics and a vacuum dressing

B.            A patient with a history of angina who experienced a non-ST wave myocardial infarction

C.            A patient who received treatment for kidney failure due to an overdose of acetaminophen

D.            A patient whose pulmonary embolism was treated with a heparin infusion

1 points  

Question 2

A patient who has been taking buspirone (BuSpar) for 1 week calls the clinic and reports to the nurse that the drug is not working. The patient informs the nurse that she is still having symptoms of anxiety. The nurse will tell the patient that

A.            she will report this to the physician immediately.

B.            it may take up to 6 months for the drug to relieve her anxiety.

C.            optimum relief of anxiety usually occurs after 3 to 4 weeks of treatment.

D.            the drug is not going to work for her and the medication needs to be changed.

1 points  

Question 3

A patient has been admitted to the ICU because of multiple traumas due to a motor vehicle accident. The physician has ordered propofol (Diprivan) to be used for maintenance of sedation. Before administration of propofol, a priority assessment by the nurse would be to check for a history of

A.            diabetic hyperlipidemia.

B.            increased intraocular pressure.

C.            seizure disorders.

D.            low blood pressure.

1 points  

Question 4

A 39-year-old patient who is having trouble sleeping is beginning drug treatment with zaleplon (Sonata). The nurse will be sure to ask the patient if she is taking

A.            oxycodone (Percodan).

B.            secobarbital (Seconal).

C.            cimetidine (Zantac).

D.            meperidine (Demerol).

1 points  

Question 5

A nurse is caring for a patient who has been admitted with acute cocaine intoxication. Which of the following vital signs would the nurse expect to find initially when assessing the patient?

A.            BP: 130/88, P: 92, R: 28

B.            Blood pressure (BP): 98/50, pulse (P): 120, respirations (R): 40

C.            BP: 170/98, P:110, R: 20

D.            BP: 150/90, P: 80, R: 16

1 points  

Question 6

A nurse is caring for a patient who abuses marijuana. The treatment for marijuana abuse consists mainly of

A.            no nursing action unless the patient experiences a “bad trip.”

B.            nonpharmacologic interventions combined with an exercise program.

C.            aggressive respiratory assistance

D.            drug therapy with bromocriptine (Parlodel).

1 points  

Question 7

A patient is suffering from acute inhalant intoxication. The priority nursing intervention will be to

A.            assess the patient’s psychosocial status.

B.            administer oxygen therapy.

C.            provide an emesis basin.

D.            administer epinephrine.

1 points  

Question 8

A 20-year-old man has begun treatment of the psychotic symptoms of schizophrenia using olanzapine (Zyprexa). Which of the following symptoms would be categorized as a negative symptom of schizophrenia?

A.            Visual hallucinations

B.            Auditory hallucinations

C.            Delusional thinking

D.            Lack of interest in normal activities

1 points  

Question 9

A homeless man who is well known to care providers at the local hospital has been admitted to the emergency department after having a seizure outside a mall. The man is known to be a heavy alcohol user and is malnourished with a very low body mass index. How are this patient’s characteristics likely to influence possible treatment with phenytoin?

A.            The patient’s heavy alcohol use will compete with phenytoin for binding sites and he will require a higher-than-normal dose.

B.            The patient’s protein deficit will likely increase the levels of the free drug in his blood.

C.            Phenytoin is contraindicated within 48 hours of alcohol use due to the possibility of paradoxical effects.

D.            The patient will require oral phenytoin rather than intravenous administration.

1 points  

Question 10

The wife of a patient who is taking haloperidol calls the clinic and reports that her husband has taken the first dose of the drug and it is not having a therapeutic effect. An appropriate response by the nurse would be

A.            “I’ll ask the nurse practitioner if the dosage can be increased.”

B.            “Continue the prescribed dose. It may take several days to work.”

C.            “I’ll ask the nurse practitioner if the haloperidol can be discontinued and another drug started.”

D.            “I’ll report this to the nurse practitioner and see if he will add another drug to enhance the effects of the haloperidol.”

1 points  

Question 11

A patient who is experiencing acute alcohol withdrawal is being treated with intravenous lorazepam (Ativan). This drug achieves a therapeutic effect by

A.            inhibiting the action of monoamine oxidase.

B.            increasing the effects of the neurotransmitter GABA.

C.            increasing the amount of serotonin available in the synapses.

D.            affecting the regulation of serotonin and norepinephrine in the brain.

1 points  

Question 12

A nurse will be prepared to administer naloxone (Narcan) to a patient who has had an overdose of morphine. Repeated doses of Narcan will be necessary because Narcan

A.            has a shorter half-life than morphine.

B.            has less strength in each dose than do individual doses of morphine.

C.            causes the respiratory rate to decrease.

D.            combined with morphine, increases the physiologic action of the morphine.

1 points  

Question 13

A 4-year-old child is brought to the emergency department by her mother. The mother reports that the child has been vomiting, and the nurse notes that the child’s face is flushed and she is diaphoretic. The mother thinks that the child may have swallowed carbachol drops. A diagnosis of cholinergic poisoning is made. Which of the following drugs would be administered?

A.            Nicotine

B.            Cevimeline

C.            Atropine

D.            Acetylcholine

1 points  

Question 14

A patient with mild low back pain has been advised to take acetaminophen. The nurse will inform him that excessive intake of acetaminophen may result in

A.            gastrointestinal distress.

B.            cognitive deficits.

C.            acute renal failure.

D.            liver damage.

1 points  

Question 15

A patient has been hospitalized for treatment of substance abuse after being arrested and jailed for the past 24 hours. The patient is experiencing severe muscle and abdominal cramps, seizures, and acute psychosis due to abrupt withdrawal. Which of the following drug classes is the most likely cause of these severe and potentially fatal withdrawal symptoms?

A.            Amphetamines

B.            Opioids

C.            Benzodiazepines

D.            Sedative–hypnotic drugs

1 points  

Question 16

A 59-year-old woman has presented to a clinic requesting a prescription for lorazepam (Ativan) in order to treat her recurrent anxiety. Her care provider, however, believes that a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) would be more appropriate. What advantage do SSRIs have over benzodiazepines in the treatment of anxiety?

A.            SSRIs have a more rapid therapeutic effect.

B.            SSRIs require administration once per week, versus daily or twice daily with benzodiazepines.

C.            SSRIs generally have fewer adverse effects.

D.            SSRIs do not require serial blood tests during therapy.

1 points  

Question 17

A 64-year-old-patient has been prescribed lorazepam (Ativan) because of increasing periods of anxiety. The nurse should be careful to assess for

A.            a history of current or past alcohol use.

B.            a diet high in fat.

C.            current nicotine use.

D.            a diet high in carbohydrates.

1 points  

Question 18

Which of the following would be an expected outcome in a patient who has been given atropine during a medical emergency?

A.            Restoration of normal sinus rhythm

B.            Resolution of respiratory acidosis

C.            Reduction of severe hypertension

D.            Increased level of consciousness

1 points  

Question 19

A trauma patient has been receiving frequent doses of morphine in the 6 days since his accident. This pattern of analgesic administration should prompt the nurse to carefully monitor the patient’s

A.            bowel patterns.

B.            urine specific gravity.

C.            skin integrity.

D.            core body temperature.

1 points  

Question 20

A middle-aged patient was diagnosed with major depression after a suicide attempt several months ago and has failed to respond appreciably to treatment with SSRIs. As a result, his psychiatrist has prescribed phenelzine. When planning this patient’s subsequent care, what nursing diagnosis should the nurse prioritize?

A.            Risk for Injury related to drug–drug interactions or drug–nutrient interactions

B.            Risk for Constipation related to decreased gastrointestinal peristalsis

C.            Risk for Ineffective Peripheral Tissue Perfusion related to cardiovascular effects of phenelzine

D.            Risk for Infection related to immunosuppressive effects of phenelzine

1 points  

Question 21

A nurse works in a sleep disorder clinic and is responsible for administering medications to the patients. Which of the following patients would be most likely to receive zaleplon (Sonata)?

A.            A 20-year-old woman who will take the drug about once a week

B.            A 46-year-old man who receives an antidepressant and needs a sleep aid

C.            A 35-year-old man who is having difficulty falling asleep, but once asleep can stay asleep

D.            A 52-year-old woman who needs to fall asleep quickly and stay asleep all night

1 points  

Question 22

A 26-year-old professional began using cocaine recreationally several months ago and has begun using the drug on a daily basis over the past few weeks. He has noticed that he now needs to take larger doses of cocaine in order to enjoy the same high that he used to experience when he first used the drug. A nurse should recognize that this pattern exemplifies

A.            drug tolerance.

B.            dependence.

C.            addiction.

D.            withdrawal.

1 points  

Question 23

A postsurgical patient has been provided with a morphine patient-controlled analgesic (PCA) but has expressed her reluctance to use it for fear of becoming addicted. How can the nurse best respond to this patient’s concerns?

A.            “It is not uncommon to develop a dependence on pain medications, but this usually takes place over a long period and is not the same as addiction.”

B.            “You don’t need to worry. It’s actually not true that you can get addicted to the medications we use in a hospital setting.”

C.            “It’s important that you accept that your current need to control your pain is more important than fears of becoming addicted.”

D.            “If you do become addicted, we’ll make sure to provide you with the support and resources necessary to help you with your recovery.”

1 points  

Question 24

A patient has been prescribed zolpidem (Ambien) for short-term treatment of insomnia. Which of the following will the nurse include in a teaching plan for this patient? (Select all that apply.)

A.            The drug does not cause sleepiness in the morning.

B.            It is available in both quick-onset and continuous-release oral forms.

C.            The drug should not be used for longer than 1 month.

D.            It should be taken 1 hour to 90 minutes before going to bed.

E.            One of the most common adverse effects of the drug is headache.

1 points  

Question 25

A patient who is experiencing withdrawal from heavy alcohol use have developed psychosis and been treated with haloperidol. Which of the following assessment findings should prompt the care team to assess the patient for neuroleptic malignant syndrome?

A.            The patient develops yellowed sclerae and intense pruritis (itchiness).

B.            The patient demonstrates a significant increase in agitation after being given haloperidol.

C.            The patient develops muscle rigidity and a sudden, high fever.

D.            The patient complains of intense thirst and produces copious amounts of urine.

1 points  

Question 26

A nurse is providing care for a patient who suffered extensive burns to his extremities during a recent industrial accident. Topical lidocaine gel has been ordered to be applied to the surfaces of all his burns in order to achieve adequate pain control. When considering this order, the nurse should be aware that

A.            there is a risk of systemic absorption of the lidocaine through the patient’s traumatized skin.

B.            intravenous lidocaine may be preferable to topical application.

C.            lidocaine must be potentiated with another anesthetic in order to achieve pain control.

D.            pain relief is unlikely to be achieved due to the destruction of nerve endings in the burn site.

1 points  

Question 27

Which of the following drugs used to treat anxiety would be appropriate for a patient who is a school teacher and is concerned about feeling sedated at work?

A.            Lorazepam (Ativan)

B.            Diazepam (Valium)

C.            Alprazolam (Xanax)

D.            Buspirone (BuSpar)

1 points  

Question 28

A nurse is caring for a patient who is in severe pain and is receiving an opioid analgesic. Which of the following would be the nurse’s priority assessments?

A.            Liver function studies, pain intensity, and blood glucose level

B.            Pain intensity, respiratory rate, and level of consciousness

C.            Respiratory rate, seizure activity, and electrolytes

D.            Respiratory rate, pain intensity, and mental status

1 points  

Question 29

A male patient has been brought to the emergency department during an episode of status epilepticus. Diazepam is to be administered intravenously. The nurse will be sure to

A.            administer after diluting the drug with gabapentin in intravenous solution.

B.            inject very slowly, no faster than 100 mg/minute.

C.            inject the diazepam very quickly, 15 mg in 10 to15 seconds.

D.            avoid the small veins in the dorsum of the hand or the wrist.

1 points  

Question 30

A 30-year-old woman is taking phenelzine (Nardil) 30mg PO tid. The nurse knows that at that dosage, the patient will need to be carefully monitored for

                A.            increased secretions.

B.            facial flushing.

C.            dizziness